Level 1 EIO Previous Year Papers for Class 8 help students in preparing for the English Olympiad exams of class 8 as well as reaching excellence in their academics. These question papers are based on the actual question paper format, which allows students to acquire a better understanding of the paper pattern, such as the kind of questions asked, the most often asked topics, and the marks allocation. Students can better prepare for the competitive exam by using English sample papers for Class 8, and as a result, they are freed of exam pressure and anxiousness. Previous question papers were created by the Indian Talent Olympiad and are based on the board's formal curriculum, with a questionnaire covering the majority of the course's essential themes. 4 sets of question papers, OMR response sheets, and an answer key are included in this kit.
INSTRUCTIONS
Total Questions : 50 Time : 65 Minutes
1. Additional 10 minutes will be given to students to fill up the student’s information before the start of the exam.
2. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. Use of calculator is not permitted.
3. There is only one correct answer, hence mark one choice only.
4. Rough work should be done on a blank sheet of paper.
01. Select the word which best expresses the meaning of the word. Sedentary
a. Material
b. Sluggish
c. Slash
d. Mischief
02. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given word. EXODUS
a. Influx
b. Home-coming
c. Return
d. Restoration
Direction (3-4): Question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four pairs of related words. Select the pair which has the same relationship.
03. DISTANCE : MILE
a. liquid : litre
b. bushel : corn
c. weight : scale
d. fame : television
04. TEN : DECIMAL
a. seven : septet
b. four : quartet
c. two : binary
d. five : quince
Direction: In the question below the sentences have been given in Direct/Indirect speech. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.
05. His father ordered him to go to his room and study.
a. His father said, “Go to your room and stud.”
b. His father said to him, “Go and study in your room.”
c. His father shouted, “Go right now to your study room”
d. His father said firmly, “Go and study in your room.”
06. After driving professor Kumar to the museum she dropped him at his hotel.
a. After being driven to the museum, Professor Kumar was dropped at his hotel.
b. Professor Kumar was being driven dropped at his hotel.
c. After she had driven Professor Kumar to the museum she had dropped him at his hotel.
d. After she was drive Professor Kumar o the museum she had dropped him at his hotel.
Direction (7-11): The principal advantage in having a clear cut objective of business is that it does not derail; the enterprise does no stray (_7_) the direct route that it has set for (_8_) Enterprises with well defined objectives can conveniently undertake (_9_) and follow long range development policies. Recognition of objectives (_10_) the temptation to compromise long range (_11_) for short term gains and improves coordination in work and consistency in policy.
07. (Solve as per the direction given above)
a. From
b. On
c. Along
d. Towards
08. (Solve as per the direction given above)
a. Others
b. Industry
c. Itself
d. Government
09. (Solve as per the direction given above)
a. Production
b. Research
c. Adult
d. Appraisal
10. (Solve as per the direction given above)
a. Invites
b. Defers
c. Shifts
d. Removes
11. (Solve as per the direction given above)
a. Objectives
b. Loses
c. Interests
d. Profits
12. In the question below, an incomplete statement followed by fillers is given. Pick out the best one which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.
I felt somewhat more relaxed ……
a. but tense as compared to earlier
b. and tense as compared to earlier
c. as there was already no tension at all
d. and tension-free as compared to earlier
13. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom given below.
To keep one’s temper
a. To become hungry
b. To be in good mood
c. To preserve ones energy
d. To be aloof from
14. Choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.
A person who insists on something
a. Disciplinarian
b. Stickler
c. Instantaneous
d. Boaster
Direction (15-16): Pick out the most effective words(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
15. My uncle decided to take _____ and my sister to the market.
a. I
b. Mine
c. Me
d. Myself
16. If you smuggle goods into the country, they may be ____ by the custom authority.
a. possessed
b. punished
c. confiscated
d. fined
Direction (17-18): A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, option ‘D’ is the answer.
17. He sent a word to me that he would be coming late.
a. sent word
b. had sent a word
c. sent words
d. no improvement
18. John had told me that he hasn’t done it yet.
a. told
b. tells
c. was telling
d. no improvement
Direction (19-21): Find the correctly spelt words.
19. (Solve as per the direction given above)
a. Forcast
b. Forecaste
c. Forcaust
d. Forecast
20. (Solve as per the direction given above)
a. Rigerous
b. Rigourous
c. Regerous
d. Rigorous
21. (Solve as per the direction given above)
a. Indipensable
b. Indipenseble
c. Indispansible
d. Indispensable
22. Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error on it. The error, if any will be one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘D’.
a. we discussed about the problem so thoroughly
b. on the eve of the examination
c. that I found it very easy to work it out.
d. No error.
Direction (23-24): In the following questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
23. EMBEZZLE
a. Misappropriate
b. Balance
c. Remunerate
d. Clear
24. LAMENT
a. Complain
b. Comment
c. Condone
d. Console
Direction (25-26): In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the once which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.
25. List of the business or subjects to be considered at a meeting
a. Schedule
b. Timetable
c. Agenda
d. Plan
26. Leave or remove from a place considered dangerous
a. Evade
b. Evacuate
c. Avoid
d. Exterminate
Directions (Q. no. 27-28): In each of the following questions some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
27. If you had told me
(P) I would not have given it to you
(Q) that you had already
(R) bought this book
(S) as a birthday present:
a. Q R P S
b. P Q R S
c. S P Q R
d. S R Q P
28. All precautionary measures were taken
(P) to prevent the capture of booths
(Q) during the election
(R) by the Government
(S) by the terrorists:
a. S P R Q
b. Q S P R
c. R P S Q
d. R Q S P
29. Reach each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.
Poor people (a) / has no money (b) / therefore they cannot afford (c) / proper medical facilities. (d)
Direction (Q. no. 30-31) – Rearrange the following five sentences/group of sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) “My horns are my weapons,” said the deer. “I’m sharpening them.”
(2) Frightened by the deer’s sharpened horns, he turned to the fox instead and shot him dead.
(3) The fox wondered what the deer was wasting time sharpening his weapon when there was no danger in sight.
(4) A wild deer was rubbing his horns against a tree. A fox passing by asked him what he was doing.
(5) Just then a hunter appeared at the scene.
30. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
31. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
32. Choose the words that complete the blanks in the correct order.
My family ________ Honduras. We ________ been in the United States for five years.
a. is come from / have
b. comes from / have
c. coming from / has
d. comes from / has
33. In the following questions some parts of the sentences have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
The Government has assured the people that
(P) in the Kargil operation
(Q) who have sacrificed their lives
(R) who will be properly looked after
(S) the families of all those soldiers:
a. P S R Q
b. S Q P R
c. S R Q P
d. S P R Q
34. Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the SAME in the meaning as the word printed in bold.
Hurdles
a. bars
b. defects
c. rejections
d. protests
35. Choose the word/phrase which is most OPPOSITE in the meaning as the word printed in bold.
Vital
a. practical
b. voluntary
c. negative
d. worthless
36. In a class of 65 boys the position of Mohan is 33rd. If the last boy is given the first position then on this basis what is the position of Mohan?
a. 32nd
b. 33rd
c. 34th
d. Data inadequate
37. Pointing to a woman in a photograph a man says. “Her mother’s mother is the mother of my father.” How is the man related to the woman in a photograph?
a. Uncle
b. Maternal cousin
c. Nephew
d. Grand son
38. If SAVOURY is coded as OVUARSY then how will RADIATE be coded?
a. AIDARET
b. IDARATE
c. ARIADTE
d. IDAATRE
39. Following question is based on the five three-digit numbers given below:
518 849 365 783 291
If the position of the first and the second digits in each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number?
a. 849
b. 365
c. 783
d. 291
40. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not he lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks?
a. Meena
b. Rupali
c. Raj
d. None of these
41. Pointing to a photographer of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?
a. Sister in law
b. Grand daughter
c. Daughter in law
d. None of these
42. In the following question a number series is given. Which one of the alternatives will replace the question mark (?)?
4, 7, 10, 10, 16, 13, ?
a. 19
b. 23
c. 21
d. 22
43. Which one will replace the question mark?
a. 0
b. 2
c. 11
d. 12
44. Which number replaces the question mark?
a. 20
b. 25
c. 27
d. 22
45. Choose the odd one.
a. Ruffian
b. Criminal
c. Gangster
d. Paragon
46. In a certain code, TRIPPLE is written as SQHOOKD. How is DISPOSE written in that code?
a. EJTQPTF
b. EJTQPTG
c. CHRPNRD
d. CHRONRD
Direction (Q. no. 47-48): Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle facing the centre. B is sitting between G and D. H is third to the left of B and second to the right of A. C is sitting between A and G and B and E are not sitting opposite to each other.
47. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. C is the third to the right of D.
b. E is sitting between F and D.
c. A is sitting between C and F.
d. E and C are sitting opposite of each other.
48. Who is third to the left of D?
a. A
b. E
c. F
d. None of these
49. Which letter replaces the question mark?
a. G
b. M
c. L
d. P
50. Which number replaces the question?
a. 6
b. 8
c. 7
d. 5
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